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ACDIS Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient Sample Questions (Q81-Q86):
NEW QUESTION # 81
A female patient who underwent total hip replacement 2 weeks ago is in for a follow-up visit with her PCP. The visit note states: "Patient complains of fatigue and lethargy. Hgb on discharge was 10.4gm/dL - now is 8.6 gm/dL. Will start FeSO4 325mg po daily with food. Repeat H/H in 2 weeks. She has return visit with Ortho then." Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the CDI specialist?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Outpatient CDI practice supports accurate, provider-validated diagnoses; CDI should not "diagnose," direct the provider to add a specific condition, or independently add diagnoses to the claim. Here, the documentation shows clinical indicators (fatigue/lethargy and hemoglobin drop from 10.4 to 8.6) and a treatment plan (oral iron and repeat H/H), but the provider has not stated a definitive diagnosis such as postoperative anemia, iron deficiency anemia, acute blood loss anemia, or anemia due to chronic disease. The best CDI action is to issue a compliant query that summarizes the relevant indicators and treatment and asks the provider to document the appropriate diagnosis and etiology, if clinically supported, and to link it to the plan of care. Option A is inappropriate because it leads the provider toward a specific diagnosis. Option D is noncompliant because coding must follow documented provider diagnoses. Option B may be a reasonable internal check, but it does not resolve the documentation gap.
NEW QUESTION # 82
A 62-year-old female with history of HTN, CAD, chronic cough and obesity is seen by her PCP. Which of the following treatment plans may result in a query?
Answer: A
Explanation:
In outpatient CDI practice, a common reason to query is a mismatch between what is being evaluated/treated and what is explicitly documented as an active condition for the encounter. A diagnostic chest x-ray aligns with the already-documented symptom (chronic cough), and a nutrition specialist referral aligns with an established diagnosis (obesity); neither inherently suggests an undocumented condition. Prescribing captopril aligns with documented HTN management, so it generally would not create documentation ambiguity requiring clarification (even though ACE inhibitors can be associated with cough, the plan alone does not establish a new reportable diagnosis). In contrast, ordering an HbA1c often signals assessment for diabetes, impaired glucose regulation, or monitoring of known diabetes. Because diabetes is not listed in the history provided, the HbA1c order may prompt the CDI specialist to query whether the provider is evaluating a suspected or existing glycemic disorder, whether there is a diagnosis such as prediabetes/diabetes being addressed, and to ensure the record clearly supports the medical necessity and any reportable condition.
NEW QUESTION # 83
In a year over year comparison, the total number of patients with the more specific diagnosis of morbid obesity versus unspecified obesity increased from 10,000 patients to 11,000 patients. Which of the following is the hypothetical increase in yearly reserve for that patient population? (Morbid obesity HCC value = 0.186 and PMPM = $800.00)
Answer: D
Explanation:
This question applies the outpatient risk adjustment "reserve" concept: predicted cost is estimated by multiplying the member's risk factor contribution by a baseline per-member-per-month (PMPM) amount, then annualizing. The morbid obesity HCC factor is 0.186, and PMPM is $800. First compute the monthly cost impact: $800 × 0.186 = $148.80 per month per patient. Convert to yearly: $148.80 × 12 = $1,785.60 per patient per year. The year-over-year increase in patients with morbid obesity documentation is 11,000 - 10,000 = 1,000 additional patients. Multiply the annual per-patient impact by the additional patient count: $1,785.60 × 1,000 = $1,785,600. Outpatient CDI programs emphasize that improving documentation specificity (when clinically supported) can change whether an HCC is captured, which can affect RAF-based projections and resource planning. However, documentation must still be accurate, supported, and reflect conditions assessed/managed during the encounter.
NEW QUESTION # 84
Provider documentation states: "A 72-year-old patient with an active history of colon cancer, status post bowel resection, receiving chemotherapy. Newly diagnosed lung metastasis. Presents with UTI and elevated creatinine. Labs demonstrate a hemoglobin of 7.9, WBC of 2,500, and platelet count of 20,000." Which of the following is the query opportunity that supports a disease interaction that impacts the risk adjustment?
Answer: A
Explanation:
In outpatient risk adjustment, "disease interactions" refer to model coefficients that are triggered when certain clinically related conditions co-exist, reflecting higher expected resource use than either condition alone. In this case, the record already supports active malignancy care (colon cancer on chemotherapy) with newly documented metastasis, and the lab pattern (anemia, leukopenia, and severe thrombocytopenia) strongly suggests pancytopenia. The highest-yield query opportunity is to clarify whether the cytopenias represent chemotherapy-induced pancytopenia (or another specified etiology) because a confirmed, well-specified hematologic complication in the context of active cancer treatment is the type of combination that commonly drives interaction effects in risk models (cancer plus significant systemic complication/manifestation). Options A and B describe clinical context but do not, by themselves, establish an interaction-ready, separately reportable complication. Option C is unrelated to the presented lab-driven severity signal. Querying and documenting chemotherapy-induced pancytopenia supports accurate capture of severity and the interaction impact.
NEW QUESTION # 85
Upon review of payer data, a decrease in RAF scores for the organization is noted. After reviewing internal metrics, a CDI specialist notes an increase in the volume of HCC queries across the organization, with accurate coding confirmed. Which of the following is the MOST plausible explanation for these findings?
Answer: A
Explanation:
When internal CDI metrics show increased HCC-related querying and coding accuracy is confirmed, you would typically expect payer RAF outputs to stabilize or improve-assuming the payer receives and processes the same diagnosis data. A payer-reported RAF decrease despite accurate internal capture most strongly suggests a break in the data flow between the organization and the payer. In outpatient risk adjustment, RAF depends on documented, supported diagnoses being correctly coded and then successfully transmitted on the encounter/claim to the payer's risk-adjustment ingestion process. If certain diagnoses are dropped (claim edits, interface mapping issues, encounter rejection, late submissions, or incomplete encounter files), the payer's dataset will under-represent HCCs and RAF will fall even though internal coding looks correct. CPT visibility (B) generally affects utilization/fee-for-service payment and analytics, not HCC-based RAF. Compliant queries (C) describe process quality but don't explain a payer-side RAF decline. A local "model not updated" (D) wouldn't reduce payer-calculated RAF if the payer is applying its own current model to received diagnoses.
NEW QUESTION # 86
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